CAPF 2017 Questions and Answers
CAPF 2017 Answer Key
Exam Held on 23rd July
Exam Held on 23rd July
1. Which of the following statements about the equatorial region are correct?
- It is a mega thermal region
- It is a sclerophyll region
- It is a region of high development
- It is a region of high streamlet
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
A) 1 and 4
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 2, 3 and 4 only
D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C) 2, 3 and 4 only
2. Which of the following statement about the Himalayas is NOT correct?
A) They are young fold mountains
B) They have geosynclinal rocks
C) Himalayan Frontal Faults separates Himalayan from Tibet
D) Indus and Sutlej river from antecedent drainage in Himalaya
Answer: B) They have geosynclinal rocks
3. Which one of the following is not a favourable condition for the occurrence of a thunderstorm?
A) Conditional and convective instability
B) Adequate supply of moisture in the atmosphere
C) Advection of Cold dry air in the lower troposphere and warm moist air in the upper troposphere
D) A synoptic situation of low-level convergence and upper-level divergence
Answer: D) A synoptic situation of low-level convergence and upper-level divergence.
7. Which one of the following statements about air pollution caused by diesel engines is correct
A)it produces large quantity of carbon mono oxide at lower and higher temperatures
B)it produces large quantity of nitrogen oxides at lower and higher temperatures
C)it produces large quantity of carbon monoxide at lower temperature in and nitrogen oxide at Higher temperature.
D) it produces large quantity of nitrogen monoxide at lower temperature in and carbon oxide at Higher temperature.
Answer: C)it produces large quantity of carbon monoxide at lower temperature in and nitrogen oxide at Higher temperature.
Diesel engines can produce black soot (or more specifically diesel particulate matter) from their exhaust. The black smoke consists of carbon compounds that have not burned because of local low temperatures where the fuel is not fully atomised.
The lean-burning nature of diesel engines and the high temperatures and pressures of the combustion process result in significant production of gaseous nitrogen oxides (NOx), an air pollutant that constitutes a unique challenge with regard to their reduction.
10. Which one of the following is not decomposed by bacterial action
A) vegetable remains
B) plastic material
C) material carcases
D) waste of flowers
13. Which one of the following countries has been ranked as the least corrupt country in the Corruption Perception Index 2016 released by Transparency International?
(a) Denmark
(b) Sweden
(c) Switzerland
(d) Norway
Answer: (a) Denmark
Nordic countries — Denmark, Finland and Sweden — topped the chart with their clean public sectors as in previous years, strife-torn or repressive states — Afghanistan, North Korea and Somalia — form the bottom rung of the CPI ladder.
14. The Central Vigilance Commission was set up on the recommendation of
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission
(b) Gorwala Committee
(c) Kripalani Committee
(d) Santhanam Committee
Answer:(d) Santhanam Committee
CVC was set up by the Government of India in February, 1964 on the recommendations of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption, headed by Shri K. Santhanam, to advise and guide Central Government agencies in the field of vigilance. Nittoor Srinivasa Rau, was selected as the first Chief Vigilance Commissioner of India.
16. Which one of the following cases in the Supreme Court of India dealt with the issue of ‘creamy layer’ among the backward classes?
(a) K M Nanavati vs. State of Bombay
(b) Indra Sawhney vs. Union of India
(c) Madhu Limaye vs. Ved Murti
(d) Sajjan Singh vs. State of Punjab
Answer: (b) Indra Sawhney vs. Union of India
4. The ecological niche of an organism relates to
A) Specific habitat of the organism
B) Symbiotic relationship with other organisms
C) Diverse Occurrence of species of under different conditions.
D) The interaction with all other organisms.
Answer: D) The interaction with all other organisms.
An ecological niche is a role and position a species has in its environment; how it meets its needs for food and shelter, how it survives, and how it reproduces. A species' niche includes all of its interactions with the biotic and abiotic factors of its environment.
5. Free swimming of microscopic animals in an aquatic environment are referred to as:
A) Plankton
B) Periphyton
C) Benthos
D) Nekton
Answer: A) Plankton
Plankton, the small and microscopic organisms drifting or floating in the sea or fresh water, consisting chiefly of diatoms, protozoans, small crustaceans, and the eggs and larval stages of larger animals. Many animals are adapted to feed on plankton, especially by filtering the water.
A) Specific habitat of the organism
B) Symbiotic relationship with other organisms
C) Diverse Occurrence of species of under different conditions.
D) The interaction with all other organisms.
Answer: D) The interaction with all other organisms.
An ecological niche is a role and position a species has in its environment; how it meets its needs for food and shelter, how it survives, and how it reproduces. A species' niche includes all of its interactions with the biotic and abiotic factors of its environment.
5. Free swimming of microscopic animals in an aquatic environment are referred to as:
A) Plankton
B) Periphyton
C) Benthos
D) Nekton
Answer: A) Plankton
Plankton, the small and microscopic organisms drifting or floating in the sea or fresh water, consisting chiefly of diatoms, protozoans, small crustaceans, and the eggs and larval stages of larger animals. Many animals are adapted to feed on plankton, especially by filtering the water.
6. The term Biomagnification is referred to as:
A) Increase in the body weight
B) Uncontrolled growth of harmful organisms
C)Accumulation of increasing amount of nondegradable pollutant through food chain.
D) Increase in number of bacteria in culture medium
Answer: C)Accumulation of increasing amount of nondegradable pollutant through food chain.Biomagnification, also known as bio-amplification or biological magnification, is the increasing concentration of a substance, such as a toxic chemical, in the tissues of organisms at successively higher levels in a food chain.7. Which one of the following statements about air pollution caused by diesel engines is correct
A)it produces large quantity of carbon mono oxide at lower and higher temperatures
B)it produces large quantity of nitrogen oxides at lower and higher temperatures
C)it produces large quantity of carbon monoxide at lower temperature in and nitrogen oxide at Higher temperature.
D) it produces large quantity of nitrogen monoxide at lower temperature in and carbon oxide at Higher temperature.
Answer: C)it produces large quantity of carbon monoxide at lower temperature in and nitrogen oxide at Higher temperature.
Diesel engines can produce black soot (or more specifically diesel particulate matter) from their exhaust. The black smoke consists of carbon compounds that have not burned because of local low temperatures where the fuel is not fully atomised.
The lean-burning nature of diesel engines and the high temperatures and pressures of the combustion process result in significant production of gaseous nitrogen oxides (NOx), an air pollutant that constitutes a unique challenge with regard to their reduction.
8. Which one of the following is a major effect of long term consumption of drinking water containing little (less than. 5 PPM) or no fluoride
A)cavity of tooth
B)erosion of nail
C)deformation of bone
D) Mottling of tooth
A)cavity of tooth
B)erosion of nail
C)deformation of bone
D) Mottling of tooth
Answer: A)cavity of tooth
Fluoride helps prevent tooth decay by making the tooth more resistant to acid attacks from plaque bacteria and sugars in the mouth. It also reverses early decay.
9. Carborundum is used as an abrasive because
A) has high thermal conductivity
B) has low coefficient of expansion
C) has high chemical stability.
9. Carborundum is used as an abrasive because
A) has high thermal conductivity
B) has low coefficient of expansion
C) has high chemical stability.
D) high stiffness
Answer: D) high stiffness
10. Which one of the following is not decomposed by bacterial action
A) vegetable remains
B) plastic material
C) material carcases
D) waste of flowers
Answer: B) plastic material
11. Which one of the following statements about Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana is NOT correct?
(a) It is a social welfare scheme to provide LPG connections in BPL households
(b) The scheme was launched in the year 2015
(c) The Government has set a target of 5 crores LPG connections under the Yojana
(d) The objective of the scheme is to safeguard the health of women and children by providing them with clean cooking fuel
Answer: (b) The scheme was launched in the year 2015
11. Which one of the following statements about Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana is NOT correct?
(a) It is a social welfare scheme to provide LPG connections in BPL households
(b) The scheme was launched in the year 2015
(c) The Government has set a target of 5 crores LPG connections under the Yojana
(d) The objective of the scheme is to safeguard the health of women and children by providing them with clean cooking fuel
Answer: (b) The scheme was launched in the year 2015
The Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) is a welfare program of the government of India, launched by Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi in 2016. The stated objective of the program is providing 50,000,000 LPG connections to women from families below the poverty line.[1] As of 3 April 2017, twenty million LPG connections had been completed. It is guided by a strong commitment to bring in changes in lives of poor women.
12. Which one of the following portals was launched on the 250th anniversary of Survey of India?
(a) Service Plus
(b) Digi Map
(c) Udaan
(d) Nakshe
Answer: (d) Nakshe
A new web portal “nakshe” was launched by the Union Minister for Science & Technology and Earth Sciences, Dr. Harsh Vardhan in New Delhi today, on the occasion of 250th anniversary of Survey of India(SoI).
(a) Denmark
(b) Sweden
(c) Switzerland
(d) Norway
Answer: (a) Denmark
Nordic countries — Denmark, Finland and Sweden — topped the chart with their clean public sectors as in previous years, strife-torn or repressive states — Afghanistan, North Korea and Somalia — form the bottom rung of the CPI ladder.
14. The Central Vigilance Commission was set up on the recommendation of
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission
(b) Gorwala Committee
(c) Kripalani Committee
(d) Santhanam Committee
Answer:(d) Santhanam Committee
CVC was set up by the Government of India in February, 1964 on the recommendations of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption, headed by Shri K. Santhanam, to advise and guide Central Government agencies in the field of vigilance. Nittoor Srinivasa Rau, was selected as the first Chief Vigilance Commissioner of India.
15. The Ninth Schedule was added to the Constitution of India by the
(a) Fourteenth Amendment
(b) First Amendment
(c) Ninenth-Third Amendment
(d) Ninety-Ninety Amendment
Answer: (b) First Amendment
(a) Fourteenth Amendment
(b) First Amendment
(c) Ninenth-Third Amendment
(d) Ninety-Ninety Amendment
Answer: (b) First Amendment
The first amendment to the Indian Constitution added the Ninth Schedule to it. It was introduced by the Nehru Government, on 10 May 1951 to address judicial decisions and pronouncements especially about the chapter on fundamental rights.
16. Which one of the following cases in the Supreme Court of India dealt with the issue of ‘creamy layer’ among the backward classes?
(a) K M Nanavati vs. State of Bombay
(b) Indra Sawhney vs. Union of India
(c) Madhu Limaye vs. Ved Murti
(d) Sajjan Singh vs. State of Punjab
Answer: (b) Indra Sawhney vs. Union of India
Supreme court in Indira Sawhney & Ors v. Union of India. AIR 1993 SC 477 : 1992 Supp (3)SCC 217 upheld Implementation of separate reservation for other backward classes in central government jobs. Ordered to exclude Creamy layer of other backward classes from enjoying reservation facilities.
17. Which one of the following statements about Cripps Mission is NOT correct ?
(a) In March 1942, Cripps persuaded War Cabinet to agree to a draft declaration
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru and Sardar Patel represented Congress to negotiate with the mission
(c) The mission offered Dominion status after the war
(d) The mission offered formation of constitution making body after the war
17. Which one of the following statements about Cripps Mission is NOT correct ?
(a) In March 1942, Cripps persuaded War Cabinet to agree to a draft declaration
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru and Sardar Patel represented Congress to negotiate with the mission
(c) The mission offered Dominion status after the war
(d) The mission offered formation of constitution making body after the war
Answer: (d) The mission offered formation of constitution making body after the war
18. Which one of the following statements about the Treaty of Allahabad is NOT correct?
(a) It was signed in the year 1765
(b) The Mughal Emperor by a farman formally granted the Diwani of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa to the East India Company
(c) Awadh was restored to its Nawab on payment of Rs.50 Lakhs
(d) Banaras and the Surrounding tracts were detached from Awadh and handed over to Shah Alam II
Answer: (b)
19. Which among the following was NOT the provision of the Gandhi – Irwin pact?
(a) Immediate release of all political prisoners of the Civil Disobedience Movement
(b) Clause 2 of the March 1931 pact defined ‘reservations and safe guards’ to cover financial credit of India.
(c) The return of confiscated land already sold to third parties
(d) Reservation of 18 percent seats for Depressed classes
Answer: (d) Reservation of 18 percent seats for Depressed classes
20. Which one of the following novels won the Pulitzer Prize for the year 2017 in the Ficiton category?
(a) The Goldfinch
(b) All the Light We Cannot See
(c) The Sympathizer
(d) The Underground Railroad
18. Which one of the following statements about the Treaty of Allahabad is NOT correct?
(a) It was signed in the year 1765
(b) The Mughal Emperor by a farman formally granted the Diwani of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa to the East India Company
(c) Awadh was restored to its Nawab on payment of Rs.50 Lakhs
(d) Banaras and the Surrounding tracts were detached from Awadh and handed over to Shah Alam II
Answer: (b)
19. Which among the following was NOT the provision of the Gandhi – Irwin pact?
(a) Immediate release of all political prisoners of the Civil Disobedience Movement
(b) Clause 2 of the March 1931 pact defined ‘reservations and safe guards’ to cover financial credit of India.
(c) The return of confiscated land already sold to third parties
(d) Reservation of 18 percent seats for Depressed classes
Answer: (d) Reservation of 18 percent seats for Depressed classes
20. Which one of the following novels won the Pulitzer Prize for the year 2017 in the Ficiton category?
(a) The Goldfinch
(b) All the Light We Cannot See
(c) The Sympathizer
(d) The Underground Railroad
Answer:(d) The Underground Railroad
21. Which one of the following does NOT pass through the Kaziranga National Park?
(a) The Brahmaputra river
(b) The Diphlu river
(c) National Highway No.37
(d) Railway track of Indian Railway
21. Which one of the following does NOT pass through the Kaziranga National Park?
(a) The Brahmaputra river
(b) The Diphlu river
(c) National Highway No.37
(d) Railway track of Indian Railway
Answer: (d) Railway track of Indian Railway
22. The US President in 2017 has signed an executive order for US withdrawal from a trade organization of the Pacific region. Identify the organization from among the following :
(a) Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation [APEC]
(b) Trans-Pacific Partnership [TPP]
(c) Free-Trade Agreement of the Asia-Pacific [FTAAP]
(d) Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership [RCEP]
22. The US President in 2017 has signed an executive order for US withdrawal from a trade organization of the Pacific region. Identify the organization from among the following :
(a) Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation [APEC]
(b) Trans-Pacific Partnership [TPP]
(c) Free-Trade Agreement of the Asia-Pacific [FTAAP]
(d) Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership [RCEP]
Answer:(b) Trans-Pacific Partnership [TPP]
23. Which one of the following judgements declared that the Parliament has NO power to amend any of the provisions of Part III of the Constitution of India?
(a) Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala
(b) Golak Nath vs. State of Punjab
(c) Champakam Dorairajan vs. State of Madras
(d) Minerva Mills Ltd. Vs. Government of India
Answer:(a) Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala
(a) Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala
(b) Golak Nath vs. State of Punjab
(c) Champakam Dorairajan vs. State of Madras
(d) Minerva Mills Ltd. Vs. Government of India
Answer:(a) Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala
The Kesavananda Bharathi judgement or His Holiness Kesavananda Bharati Sripadagalvaru and Ors. v. State of Kerala and Anr. (case citation: (1973) 4 SCC 225) is a landmark decision of the Supreme Court of India that outlined the Basic Structure doctrine of the Constitution. Justice Hans Raj Khanna asserted through this doctrine that the constitution possesses a basic structure of constitutional principles and values. The Court cemented the prior precedent Golaknath v. State of Punjab AIR 1967 SC 1643, which held that constitutional amendments pursuant to Article 368 were subject to fundamental rights review.
The Basic Structure doctrine forms the basis of power of the Indian judiciary to review, and strike down, amendments to the Constitution of India enacted by the Indian parliament which conflict with or seek to alter this basic structure of the Constitution.
24. Who among the following leaders is associated with the concept of party less democracy?
(a) J B Kripalani
(b) Jayaprakash Narayan
(c) Acharya Narendra Dev
(d) Vinoba Bhave
Answer: (b) Jayaprakash Narayan
25.Who among the following is empowered to establish Inter State Council under Article 263 of the Constitution of India?
(a) Parliament
(b) Council of Ministers
(c) President of India
(d) Chief Justice of India
Answer: (c) President of India
26. Which among the following was NOT the recommendation of the Nehru Report?
(a) Dominion Status
(b) Separate Electorate
(c) Unitary and Democratic Centre
(d) Adult Suffrage
Answer: (b) Separate Electorate
27. Which one of the following statement about the Indigo Revolt of 1859 is correct?
(a) It broke out at Poona and Ahmednagar
(b) It was directed against money lenders
(c) It was supported by the Intelligentsia of Bengal
(d) It was directed against the petty Zamindars and ex-employees of the planters
Answer: (d) It was directed against the petty Zamindars and ex-employees of the planters
28. Which of the following active step[s] was /were taken by the Congress in 1823 to eradicate untouchability from India?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 4 only
Answer: (d) 4 only
29. Which one of the following is NOT a river covered under the Indus Water Treaty 1960?
(a) Ravi
(b) Chenab
(c) Teesta
(d) Beas
Answer: (c) Teesta
The Indus Waters Treaty (English) or सिंधु जल - संधि (Hindi) is a water-distribution treaty between India and Pakistan, brokered by the World Bank (then the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development). The treaty was signed in Karachi on September 19, 1960 by Prime Minister of India Jawaharlal Nehru and President of Pakistan Ayub Khan.
According to this agreement, control over the three "eastern" rivers — the Beas, the Ravi and the Sutlej — was given to India, while control over the three "western" rivers — the Indus, the Chenab and the Jhelum — to Pakistan. More controversial, however, were the provisions on how the waters were to be shared. Since Pakistan's rivers flow through India first, the treaty allowed India to use them for irrigation, transport and power generation, while laying down precise regulations for Indian building projects along the way. The treaty was a result of Pakistani fear that, since the source rivers of the Indus basin were in India, it could potentially create droughts and famines in Pakistan, especially at times of war.
The Basic Structure doctrine forms the basis of power of the Indian judiciary to review, and strike down, amendments to the Constitution of India enacted by the Indian parliament which conflict with or seek to alter this basic structure of the Constitution.
24. Who among the following leaders is associated with the concept of party less democracy?
(a) J B Kripalani
(b) Jayaprakash Narayan
(c) Acharya Narendra Dev
(d) Vinoba Bhave
Answer: (b) Jayaprakash Narayan
25.Who among the following is empowered to establish Inter State Council under Article 263 of the Constitution of India?
(a) Parliament
(b) Council of Ministers
(c) President of India
(d) Chief Justice of India
Answer: (c) President of India
26. Which among the following was NOT the recommendation of the Nehru Report?
(a) Dominion Status
(b) Separate Electorate
(c) Unitary and Democratic Centre
(d) Adult Suffrage
Answer: (b) Separate Electorate
27. Which one of the following statement about the Indigo Revolt of 1859 is correct?
(a) It broke out at Poona and Ahmednagar
(b) It was directed against money lenders
(c) It was supported by the Intelligentsia of Bengal
(d) It was directed against the petty Zamindars and ex-employees of the planters
Answer: (d) It was directed against the petty Zamindars and ex-employees of the planters
28. Which of the following active step[s] was /were taken by the Congress in 1823 to eradicate untouchability from India?
- Effort to educate and mobilize opinion among caste Hindus
- Efforts to educate the ‘avarnas’ about the evils of untouchability
- Forcibly open the doors of temples for ‘avarnas’
- Petition the Government to pass laws that would declare untouchability unlawful
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 4 only
Answer: (d) 4 only
29. Which one of the following is NOT a river covered under the Indus Water Treaty 1960?
(a) Ravi
(b) Chenab
(c) Teesta
(d) Beas
Answer: (c) Teesta
The Indus Waters Treaty (English) or सिंधु जल - संधि (Hindi) is a water-distribution treaty between India and Pakistan, brokered by the World Bank (then the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development). The treaty was signed in Karachi on September 19, 1960 by Prime Minister of India Jawaharlal Nehru and President of Pakistan Ayub Khan.
According to this agreement, control over the three "eastern" rivers — the Beas, the Ravi and the Sutlej — was given to India, while control over the three "western" rivers — the Indus, the Chenab and the Jhelum — to Pakistan. More controversial, however, were the provisions on how the waters were to be shared. Since Pakistan's rivers flow through India first, the treaty allowed India to use them for irrigation, transport and power generation, while laying down precise regulations for Indian building projects along the way. The treaty was a result of Pakistani fear that, since the source rivers of the Indus basin were in India, it could potentially create droughts and famines in Pakistan, especially at times of war.
30. Who among the following are awarded with the Special Breakthrough Prize in Fundamental Physics for the year 2017?
(a) Stephen W Hawking and Roget Penrose
(b) Ronald Drever, Kip S Thorne and Rainer Weiss
(c) Joseph Polchinski, Andrew Strominger and Cumrun Vafa
(d) J Michael Kosterlitz, Duncan Haldane and David J Thouless
Answer: (c) Joseph Polchinski, Andrew Strominger and Cumrun Vafa
(a) Stephen W Hawking and Roget Penrose
(b) Ronald Drever, Kip S Thorne and Rainer Weiss
(c) Joseph Polchinski, Andrew Strominger and Cumrun Vafa
(d) J Michael Kosterlitz, Duncan Haldane and David J Thouless
Answer: (c) Joseph Polchinski, Andrew Strominger and Cumrun Vafa
